Hello Wikivorce and all who come before me.
I am new to this divorce lark and I am trying to find my way around a few things and have somee questions. I apologise if these should be asked elsewhere or have already been answered but the search function didnt help.
Background:
Been married to stbx since 1998, have 3 children, though one is 20 in full time work and lives elsewhere, one is 18 and doing a-level equivalent studies and a 10 year old.
Seperated in 2014 due to stbx behaviour/attitudes.
I am still in MH with stbx after all this time (it's really complicated)
We have agreed to divorce and I filed with the court a few days ago.
We are trying to remain amicable and resolve financial issues.
We have agree divorce on separation for at least 5 years and I have paid the fee.
We have
no assets other than a 50% share of a shared ownership house - which she wants to remain living in with the younger children (10 and 18) - and we will look to sell the house when youngest reaches 18 unless stbx can afford to buy me out of my share. It is intended that I should move out.
Here comes the question. I do have a new partner.
When I move out, when I find somewhere - I have £300/mth available, I will not be moving in with my partner. It will be a bedsit/house share (or maybe my car). I need some space and time to myself. Try to deal with my anxiety etc.
However, at some point in the future, I would like to think that one day, if my partner puts up with me long enough, we may settle down together (awe sweet).
Really, here comes the question: On the "Statement of information for a
Consent Order in relation to a financial remedy" form there is a statement which reads: I have no intention at present to remarry/enter into a new civil partnership or cohabit.
I am not sure how to respond...what does 'no intention at present' and 'cohabit' mean in this context?
Some clarity would be great?
